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◄ ← 1 YHN (1 JHN) 3:8 ↓ → ► ║ ©
OET (OET-LV) The one practicing the sin, is of the devil, because the devil is_sinning from the_beginning.
The son of_ the _god was_revealed for this, in_order_that he_may_destroy the works of_the devil.
OET (OET-RV) Anyone who regularly sins belongs to the devil, because the devil has been sinning from the beginning.
Read 2:28–4:6 carefully.
Section Theme: In this section (after the main theme in 2:28–29), John is saying that in order not to be ashamed when we meet Christ we must do the following:
3:1–10 | We should live pure and righteous lives as Christ did. |
3:11–18 | We should love and help our fellow Christians. |
3:19–24 | We should obey God’s commands to believe in his Son and to love one another. |
4:1–6 | We should carefully test what teachers say so that we know whether they are speaking for the Holy Spirit. |
Read 3:7–10 in both BSB and GNT. Compare the two versions.
Paragraph Theme: John explains that our behavior shows whether we belong to God or to Satan.
The one who practices sin is of the devil,
But anyone who continually sins clearly belongs to Satan.
But if a person continues to do what is wrong in God’s sight, it is clear that Satan is his father.
The one who practices sin: (Tense) This is the same as “who practices sin” in 3:4. The tense shows that it is referring to continual or habitual sinning. See GNT, JB, LB, JBP.
is of the devil: (Meaning) This means that such a person is under the control of the devil and shares his nature. This is sometimes expressed in translation as “is a child of the devil.” (NEB, JBP)
the devil: (Biblical Term) See Evil Spirit in Key Biblical Terms.
because the devil has been sinning from the very start.
This is clear because such a person is just like Satan, who has been sinning since before the beginning of the world.
because: (Logical Relationship) John is saying that we know the devil has always been sinning, and therefore we know that anyone who continually sins must belong to him. He is not saying that if a person keeps sinning this makes him a child of the devil.
from the very start: (Meaning) This is the same Greek phrase as was used in 1:1 and 2:13, which the BSB translates as “from the beginning” in each of those verses. Here, the phrase means the same thing as in each of those verses. It refers to the beginning of the world.
This is why the Son of God was revealed, to destroy the works of the devil.
Jesus Christ, God’s Son, came to the world in order to undo everything that Satan has done.
This is why the Son of God was revealed, to destroy the works of the devil: (Parenthesis) This sentence is a comment on the devil’s sinful activities which have just been mentioned. It interrupts John’s teaching about the two types of people, sinful and righteous, which continues in the next two verses.
was revealed: (Meaning) See the note “Christ appeared” on 3:5a.
destroy the works of the devil: (Meaning) The devil’s work is tempting people to sin and getting control over their lives so that they continue to sin. Christ came to free people from the devil’s control and to defeat his efforts to tempt people. So the devil’s work is in vain.
Note 1 topic: figures-of-speech / idiom
ἐκ τοῦ διαβόλου ἐστίν
of the devil is
Here the preposition from indicates influence. The usage here is similar to that in the phrase “from the world” in [2:16](../02/16.md). Alternate translation: [is acting under the influence of the devil]
Note 2 topic: figures-of-speech / idiom
ἀπ’ ἀρχῆς
from ˓the˒_beginning
John uses the phrase from the beginning in various ways in this letter. Here it refers to the time when God created the world. In this case, the word from indicates not that the devil began to sin at that time, but that he had already begun to sin by that time. Alternate translation: [even before the world was created]
Note 3 topic: guidelines-sonofgodprinciples
ὁ Υἱὸς τοῦ Θεοῦ
the (Some words not found in SR-GNT: Ὁ ποιῶν τήν ἁμαρτίαν ἐκ τοῦ διαβόλου ἐστίν ὅτι ἀπʼ ἀρχῆς ὁ διάβολος ἁμαρτάνει εἰς τοῦτο ἐφανερώθη Ὁ Υἱός τοῦ Θεοῦ ἵνα λύσῃ τά ἔργα τοῦ διαβόλου)
Son of God is an important title for Jesus. Alternate translation: [Jesus, the Son of God] or [God’s Son Jesus]
Note 4 topic: figures-of-speech / activepassive
ἐφανερώθη
˓was˒_revealed
See the discussion of the term “appear” in Part 3 of the Introduction to 1 John. Here the term seems to have an active meaning and to mean the same thing as in [3:5](../03/05.md), that Jesus came to earth. It does not mean that he only appeared to come. Alternate translation: [came to earth]
Note 5 topic: figures-of-speech / explicit
ἵνα λύσῃ τὰ ἔργα τοῦ διαβόλου
in_order_that ˱he˲_˓may˒_destroy (Some words not found in SR-GNT: Ὁ ποιῶν τήν ἁμαρτίαν ἐκ τοῦ διαβόλου ἐστίν ὅτι ἀπʼ ἀρχῆς ὁ διάβολος ἁμαρτάνει εἰς τοῦτο ἐφανερώθη Ὁ Υἱός τοῦ Θεοῦ ἵνα λύσῃ τά ἔργα τοῦ διαβόλου)
If it would be helpful to your readers, you could state explicitly what works John is talking about. Alternate translation: [so that he might free people from continually sinning, as the devil had influenced them to do]
OET (OET-LV) The one practicing the sin, is of the devil, because the devil is_sinning from the_beginning.
The son of_ the _god was_revealed for this, in_order_that he_may_destroy the works of_the devil.
OET (OET-RV) Anyone who regularly sins belongs to the devil, because the devil has been sinning from the beginning.
Note: The OET-RV is still only a first draft, and so far only a few words have been (mostly automatically) matched to the Hebrew or Greek words that they’re translated from.
Acknowledgements: The SR Greek text, lemmas, morphology, and VLT gloss are all thanks to the CNTR.