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InterlinearVerse GEN EXO LEV NUM DEU JOB JOS JDG RUTH 1 SAM 2 SAM PSA AMOS HOS 1 KI 2 KI 1 CHR 2 CHR PROV ECC SNG JOEL MIC ISA ZEP HAB JER LAM YNA (JNA) NAH OBA DAN EZE EZRA EST NEH HAG ZEC MAL LAO GES LES ESG DNG 2 PS TOB JDT WIS SIR BAR LJE PAZ SUS BEL MAN 1 MAC 2 MAC 3 MAC 4 MAC YHN (JHN) MARK MAT LUKE ACTs YAC (JAM) GAL 1 TH 2 TH 1 COR 2 COR ROM COL PHM EPH PHP 1 TIM TIT 1 PET 2 PET 2 TIM HEB YUD (JUD) 1 YHN (1 JHN) 2 YHN (2 JHN) 3 YHN (3 JHN) REV
Rom C1 C2 C3 C4 C5 C6 C7 C8 C9 C10 C11 C12 C13 C14 C15 C16
Rom 3 V1 V2 V3 V4 V5 V6 V7 V8 V10 V11 V12 V13 V14 V15 V16 V17 V18 V19 V20 V21 V22 V23 V24 V25 V26 V27 V28 V29 V30 V31
OET (OET-LV) Therefore what?
We_are_having_advantage?
Not certainly, because/for we_previously_charged, Youdaiōns both and Hellaʸns, all under sin to_be.
OET (OET-RV) What then? Do Jews have any advantage? Definitely not, because we showed earlier that both Jews and other nationalities are all under sin’s shadow
In this section, Paul used quotations from the Old Testament to show that the Jews sin against God. They are not better than the Gentiles. God will hold them responsible for their sins. Paul also said that when someone follows the law of Moses, that does not make God say he is righteous.
Here are other possible headings for this section:
Both Jews and Gentiles sin
No One is Righteous (NIV)
Everyone has sinned
Are we any better? Not at all: This is a rhetorical question and its answer. The rhetorical question causes the reader to think of what might be the answer. Paul then told what the answer was. Here are some ways to translate this:
As a rhetorical question and its answer. For example:
Do we have any advantage? Not at all! (NIV11)
are we Jews better than others? No! (NCV)
Is the status of the Jews in God’s estimation better than that of the Gentiles? NoKankanaey Back Translation on TW.
As a statement. For example:
We Jews are not better off, no, not at all.
We Jews have no advantage over the Gentiles. No none at all.
The status of the Jews in God’s estimation is no better than that of the Gentiles. No.
Many Jews thought that they were better than the Gentiles/Greeks because they had God’s word and God chose them to be his people. Paul asked this question and answered “no” to show that Jews also were sinners.
What then? Are we any better?
¶ So then, what does this mean? Are we(excl) Jews better/superior than others?
¶ So what shall we say? We Jews have no advantage over non-Jews.
What then?: This is a rhetorical question. It causes the reader to think about what the answer might be. Paul used it to introduce the next question. Here are other ways to translate this question:
What does all this mean? (CEV)
What shall we conclude then? (NIV)
What then will we say?Kankanaey Back Translation on TW.
we: Some English versions add the word “Jews” here. In 3:9c, Paul spoke of Jews and Greeks, so he would include himself with the Jews in this case.
any better: Here this phrase means “to have an advantage.” It compares one group with another and indicates that one is better than the other. See the examples above.
Not at all.
Absolutely/Certainly not!
No!
Not at all: The Greek words are more literally “not certainly” or “not entirely.” But many English versions and scholars translate the Greek as Not at all (BSB) or “Certainly not” (NET). Some English versions add the word “No,” perhaps for a more natural English expression. Here are other ways to translate these words:
By no means!
Certainly not! (NET)
For we have already made the charge that Jews and Greeks alike are all under sin.
For/Because we/I have already accused all people, both Jews and Gentiles, of being sinners,
I have already said that all of us, whether we are Jews or non-Jews, are to blame for sinning.
For: This conjunction introduces an explanation of “Are we any better? Not at all!” in 3:9a–b. In some languages it is more natural to omit this conjunction and allow the context to imply that connection. For example:
we have already… (NJB)
we: This pronoun refers to Paul as the writer of this letter (1:1). The style of using we when only one person is speaking or writing occurs in Greek literature and in the Bible.
It does not refer to the same people as “we” in 3:9a. You may want to use “I” to indicate that Paul was not including Jews here. For example:
I (GNT)
have already made the charge: This phrase means “accused beforehand.” Paul said earlier in this letter that Jews and non-Jews are sinners. Now he reminded his readers that he said that. Here are other ways to translate this phrase:
have already accused (GW)
said before that they were to blame
already said that…are all guilty (NCV)
already said that…all have sinOtomi Back Translation on TW.
Greeks: The basic meaning of this word is “people who are from Greece.” But in the New Testament the word usually refers to anyone who is not a Jew. So it includes Romans and other non-Jewish peoples. In some languages a literal translation would wrongly refer only to people from Greece. If that is true in your language, you may want to:
Use a more general word. For example:
Gentiles (CEV)
Translate the literal meaning and explain it in a footnote. Here is an example footnote:
This word in the New Testament usually refers to anyone who is not a Jew.
under sin: There are two ways to interpret the Greek phrase that the BSB translates as under sin:
It means that all people are sinners. For example:
guilty of sin (NCV) (NCV)
It means that all people are under the power of sin. For example:
under the dominion of sin (NJB) (RSV, NIV11, GNT, NJB, NABRE, NLT, GW, CEV, REB)
The BSB, NIV84, ESV, NASB, KJV, and NET translate literally, but the phrase under sin is not clear as to its exact meaning in English. It could mean interpretation (1) or (2). If a literal translation in your language allows for interpretation (1), you may want to translate that way.
But if a literal translation in your language will only follow interpretation (2), it is recommended that you follow interpretation (1), because the examples of under sin in 3:10–18 clearly refer to people responsible for their sin and not to sin controlling them.Longenecker, Lenski, and Alford support interpretation (1). Some scholars refer to 7:14 to support “under the power of sin” here, but this author feels the context is too different to be a good parallel. Also, interpretation (1) fits better with the Greek word that the BSB translates as “we have already made the charge,” as those responsible rather than being victims.
Here are other ways to translate this phrase according to interpretation (1):
are sinnersUma Back Translation on TW.
sin habituallyYakan Back Translation on TW.
sin: This word refers to doing something that God said is wrong to do, or not doing something that God said they should do.
Note 1 topic: grammar-connect-logic-result
τί οὖν? προεχόμεθα?
what (Some words not found in SR-GNT: τί Οὖν Προεχόμεθα Οὒ πάντως προῃτιασάμεθα γάρ Ἰουδαίους τέ καί Ἕλληνας πάντας ὑφʼ ἁμαρτίαν εἶναι)
Here Paul concludes his series of rhetorical questions by using the same phrase What then he used to begin this discussion. See how you translated this phrase in [3:1](../03/01.md).
Note 2 topic: figures-of-speech / rquestion
προεχόμεθα?
(Some words not found in SR-GNT: τί Οὖν Προεχόμεθα Οὒ πάντως προῃτιασάμεθα γάρ Ἰουδαίους τέ καί Ἕλληνας πάντας ὑφʼ ἁμαρτίαν εἶναι)
Paul is using the question form to express an objection that a Jew might have to what Paul has said previously. If you would not use a rhetorical question for this purpose in your language, you could translate his words as a statement or an exclamation and communicate the emphasis in another way. Alternate translation: [Surely we are not better off!]
Note 3 topic: figures-of-speech / exclusive
προεχόμεθα
(Some words not found in SR-GNT: τί Οὖν Προεχόμεθα Οὒ πάντως προῃτιασάμεθα γάρ Ἰουδαίους τέ καί Ἕλληνας πάντας ὑφʼ ἁμαρτίαν εἶναι)
Here, we is used exclusively to speak of Paul and his fellow Jews. Your language may require you to mark these forms. Alternate translation: [Are we Jews better off]
Note 4 topic: figures-of-speech / exclamations
οὐ πάντως
(Some words not found in SR-GNT: τί Οὖν Προεχόμεθα Οὒ πάντως προῃτιασάμεθα γάρ Ἰουδαίους τέ καί Ἕλληνας πάντας ὑφʼ ἁμαρτίαν εἶναι)
Not at all is an exclamation that communicates a strong negative response to the previous statement. Use an exclamation that is natural in your language for communicating this idea. Alternate translation: [Absolutely not!] or [In no way!]
Note 5 topic: figures-of-speech / ellipsis
οὐ πάντως
(Some words not found in SR-GNT: τί Οὖν Προεχόμεθα Οὒ πάντως προῃτιασάμεθα γάρ Ἰουδαίους τέ καί Ἕλληνας πάντας ὑφʼ ἁμαρτίαν εἶναι)
Paul is leaving out some of the words that a sentence would need in many languages to be complete. If it would be helpful in your language, you could supply these words from the context. Alternate translation: [We are not better off at all]
Note 6 topic: grammar-connect-logic-result
προῃτιασάμεθα γὰρ
˱we˲_previously_charged (Some words not found in SR-GNT: τί Οὖν Προεχόμεθα Οὒ πάντως προῃτιασάμεθα γάρ Ἰουδαίους τέ καί Ἕλληνας πάντας ὑφʼ ἁμαρτίαν εἶναι)
For here indicates that what follows is the reason why the previous statement is true. Use a natural way in your language for indicating a reason. Alternate translation: [We are not better off because we have already accused]
Note 7 topic: figures-of-speech / exclusive
προῃτιασάμεθα
˱we˲_previously_charged
Here, we could mean: (1) Paul is speaking only of himself in a formal manner. Alternate translation: [I have already accused] (2) Paul is speaking of himself and other Christians. Alternate translation: [we Christians have already accused] See how you translated we in the previous verse.
Note 8 topic: figures-of-speech / explicit
Ἕλληνας
Greeks
Here, Greeks refers to non-Jewish people in general. It does not refer only to people from the country of Greece. If it would be helpful in your language, you could state this explicitly. Alternate translation: [non-Jewish people]
Note 9 topic: figures-of-speech / idiom
ὑφ’ ἁμαρτίαν
under sin
The phrase under sin is an idiom that means “under the power of sin” or “controlled by one’s desire to sin.” If it would be helpful in your language, you could express the meaning plainly. Alternate translation: [controlled by sin] or [unable to stop sinning]
3:9 No, not at all: Paul’s emphatic answer does not contradict his claim in 3:1-2 that Jews have an advantage. But that advantage has not done them any good because they have disobeyed God’s word and incurred God’s punishment. Jews, like Gentiles, have sinned against the revelation of God and stand condemned.
• under the power of sin (literally under sin): Being “under” something carries the sense of being under its power. The ultimate problem of human beings is not the fact of sin, but the situation of being slaves to sin. The solution to this problem requires the liberation provided in Christ Jesus, who frees us from both the penalty and the power of sin.
OET (OET-LV) Therefore what?
We_are_having_advantage?
Not certainly, because/for we_previously_charged, Youdaiōns both and Hellaʸns, all under sin to_be.
OET (OET-RV) What then? Do Jews have any advantage? Definitely not, because we showed earlier that both Jews and other nationalities are all under sin’s shadow
Note: The OET-RV is still only a first draft, and so far only a few words have been (mostly automatically) matched to the Hebrew or Greek words that they’re translated from.
Acknowledgements: The SR Greek text, lemmas, morphology, and VLT gloss are all thanks to the CNTR.